A 35-year-old man presents with episodes of palpitations associated with chest discomfort and anxiety. He is referred for electrophysiologic testing and possible ablation. No tachycardias are induced during the study, but a tracing is recorded during baseline study while under sedation (above).

Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
  1. Implantation of a permanent dual-chamber pacemaker and program the device at VVI 40 ppm.
  2. Implantation of a permanent single-chamber pacemaker and programming of the device to VVI 40 ppm.
  3. Implantation of a dual-chamber pacemaker and programming of the device to DDD with a lower rate limit of 60 ppm and upper rate limit of 140 ppm.
  4. Implantation of a dual-chamber pacemaker programmed AAIR 60-140 ppm.
  5. Initiate 30-day event recorder.
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